"If B is magnetic field and μ0\mu_0 is permeability of free space, then the dimensions of (B/μ0\mu_0) is"" (1) MT –2 A –1 (2) L –1 A (3) LT –2 A –1 (4) ML 2 T –2 A –1"

2 min read
23 views
Published July 8, 2025
Physics
Electromagnetism
Dimensional Analysis

💡 Want to ask your own questions?

Get instant explanations with AI • Free trial

Detailed Explanation

1. Magnetic field from the Lorentz force

For a charge qq moving with velocity vv through a magnetic field BB, the magnitude of magnetic force is

F=qvBsinθF = q\,v\,B\sin\theta

Ignoring sinθ\sin\theta (dimensionless),

B=FqvB = \dfrac{F}{q\,v}

  • Force has dimensions [MLT2][M\,L\,T^{-2}].
  • Charge has dimensions [IT][I\,T] (current × time).
  • Velocity has dimensions [LT1][L\,T^{-1}].

So

[B]=MLT2(IT)(LT1)=MT2I1[B] = \dfrac{M\,L\,T^{-2}}{(I\,T)(L\,T^{-1})} = M\,T^{-2}\,I^{-1}


2. Permeability of free space μ0\mu_0

From the constitutive relation in vacuum

B=μ0HB = \mu_0\,H

and the fact that magnetic field intensity HH has dimensions of current per length,

[H]=IL1[H] = I\,L^{-1}

Therefore

[μ0]=[B][H]=MT2I1IL1=MLT2I2[\mu_0] = \dfrac{[B]}{[H]} = \dfrac{M\,T^{-2}\,I^{-1}}{I\,L^{-1}} = M\,L\,T^{-2}\,I^{-2}


3. Putting it together: Bμ0\dfrac{B}{\mu_0}

[Bμ0]=MT2I1MLT2I2=L1I+1\left[\dfrac{B}{\mu_0}\right] = \dfrac{M\,T^{-2}\,I^{-1}}{M\,L\,T^{-2}\,I^{-2}} = L^{-1}\,I^{+1}

So the dimensional formula is L1AL^{-1} AOption (2).

Simple Explanation (ELI5)

What is the question?

We want to know what basic "building-blocks" (mass, length, time, current) make up the quantity Bμ0\dfrac{B}{\mu_0}.

Baby-step idea 🧒🏻

  1. Think of a magnet pulling on a moving electric charge. The pull (force) depends on the magnetic field BB.
  2. The famous rule is
    F=q  v  BF = q \; v \; B
    (force = charge × speed × magnetic field).
  3. By rearranging we can describe BB in terms of the already-known force, charge and speed.
  4. Then we use another rule B=μ0HB = \mu_0\,H to express μ0\mu_0.
  5. Finally we divide the two answers and see which basic units remain.

After the dust settles, only length in the denominator and current in the numerator survive, giving the answer L1AL^{-1}A (option 2).

👆 Found this helpful? Get personalized explanations for YOUR questions!

Step-by-Step Solution

Step-by-Step Calculation

  1. Start with the Lorentz force law F=qvBF = q\,v\,B [F] = MLT2M L T^{-2} [q] = ITI T [v] = LT1L T^{-1}

  2. Isolate BB and write its dimensions

    B=Fqv[B]=MLT2(IT)(LT1)=MT2I1B = \dfrac{F}{q v} \quad\Longrightarrow\quad [B] = \dfrac{M L T^{-2}}{(I T)(L T^{-1})} = M\,T^{-2}\,I^{-1}

  3. Use the relation B=μ0HB = \mu_0 H [H] = IL1I L^{-1}

    [μ0]=[B][H]=MT2I1IL1=MLT2I2[\mu_0] = \dfrac{[B]}{[H]} = \dfrac{M T^{-2} I^{-1}}{I L^{-1}} = M L T^{-2} I^{-2}

  4. Compute [B/μ0][B/\mu_0]

    [Bμ0]=MT2I1MLT2I2=L1I+1\left[\dfrac{B}{\mu_0}\right] = \dfrac{M T^{-2} I^{-1}}{M L T^{-2} I^{-2}} = L^{-1} I^{+1}

  5. Write in standard dimensional form

    [B/μ0]=L1A[B/\mu_0] = L^{-1} A

  6. Match with the given options

    Option (2): L1AL^{-1} A

Final Answer: Option (2)

Examples

Example 1

Designing MRI machines where the ratio of magnetic field to permeability determines magnetic energy density

Example 2

Calculating magnetic pressure in astrophysical jets using B^2 / (2 μ0)

Example 3

Estimating force on a current-carrying wire using B and μ0 values

Visual Representation

References

🤔 Have Your Own Question?

Get instant AI explanations in multiple languages with diagrams, examples, and step-by-step solutions!

AI-Powered Explanations
🎯Multiple Languages
📊Interactive Diagrams

No signup required • Try 3 questions free